Present Value & the Discount Factor
Accumulation moves money forward in time; discounting moves it back. The discount factor \(v = 1/(1+i)\) pulls a future amount back to its worth today, and the effective rate of discount \(d = i/(1+i)\) measures that same shrinkage as a rate.
By the end you'll be able to compute \(v\) and \(d\) from \(i\), verify the identities \(v = 1-d\) and \(i-d = id\) that tie them together, and use \(v^t\) to find the present value (PV) of an amount due \(t\) years from now.
Predict: as you drag i higher, does the present value of a fixed future amount rise or fall? Drag the slider below to check.
A future amount of 1, due at time t, is worth \(v^t\) today — pulled back one discount factor per year. Drag i and t and watch the present-value bar shrink as either one grows; the dashed curve traces the amount's value at every point on the way back from \(t\) to today.
v = 1/(1+i) = 0.9434 · d = i/(1+i) = 0.0566
v = 1−d: 0.9434 = 1−0.0566 ✓ i−d = i·d: 0.003396 = 0.003396 ✓
If a unit grows to \((1+i)\) after one year, then the amount you'd need to invest now to have 1 in a year is just the reciprocal — that's the discount factor. Run that reciprocal forward \(t\) times and you can pull any future amount all the way back to today.
You can read \(v = 1/(1+i)\) as the factor that pulls an amount \(F\) due \(t\) years from now back to its present value today: \(PV = F\cdot v^t = F/(1+i)^t\) — the exact reverse of the accumulation \((1+i)^t\) you'd use to grow it forward. The effective rate of discount \(d = i/(1+i) = i\cdot v\) lets you measure the same interest, but as a fraction of the ending balance instead of the starting one. Add the two factors and you get \(v + d = (1+i)/(1+i) = 1\), so \(v = 1-d\) — the present-value bar you saw shrink above and the discount rate are two sides of the same coin. A third identity, \(i - d = i\cdot d\), falls out of the same algebra if you work it through: \(i - i/(1+i) = i\cdot(i/(1+i)) = id\).
When you borrow, interest is quoted on the starting balance and paid at the end; when you buy at a discount, the rate is quoted on the ending balance and taken off at the beginning — the way a Treasury bill is sold below its face value today instead of paying interest later. If you buy a T-bill paying 1000 at maturity, you pay \(1000\cdot v\) for it now, so the discount you get up front is exactly \(1000\cdot d\).
Let \(i = 6\%\). Then \(v = 1/1.06 = \) 0.943396, \(d = 0.06/1.06 = \) 0.056604 (check: \(d = 1-v = 1-0.943396\) ✓), and \(i-d = 0.06-0.056604 = 0.003396 = 0.06\cdot 0.056604 = i\cdot d\) ✓. The present value of 5000 due in 4 years is \(5000\cdot v^4 = 5000(0.943396)^4 \approx\) 3960.47.
Same idea, different numbers: \(i = 4\%\). \(v = 1/1.04 = 0.961538\), and \(d = 0.04/1.04 = 0.038462\) (check: \(1 - v = 1 - 0.961538 = 0.038462\) ✓). An amount of 8000 is due in 5 years. Now finish it: \(PV = 8000\cdot v^5 = 8000(0.961538)^5 = \) ____
Reveal the answer
\((0.961538)^5 \approx 0.821927\), so \(PV = 8000\times 0.821927 \approx\) 6575.42. Set \(i = 4\%\) and \(t = 5\) on the slider above and check the present-value bar against this figure.
More info — why v and d have to add to 1
Write both over the same denominator: \(v = \dfrac{1}{1+i}\) and \(d = \dfrac{i}{1+i}\). Adding the numerators, \(v + d = \dfrac{1+i}{1+i} = 1\) exactly, for any \(i\) — not an approximation, so the identities \(v = 1-d\) and \(d = 1-v\) hold precisely, not just for small rates. See the Wikibooks formula sheet in Dive deeper below to check \(v = v^t\) notation and the reciprocal \(i = d/(1-d)\) against this same algebra.
Check your understanding
At an effective annual rate \(i = 0.08\), what is the discount factor \(v\)?
You owe a fixed amount 3 years from now. As the effective annual interest rate \(i\) rises, what happens to that amount's present value today?
Which equation correctly relates the discount factor \(v\) and the effective rate of discount \(d\)?
An amount of 1000 is due in 3 years and \(i = 5\%\). Which expression gives its present value today — as opposed to the accumulated value you'd get by investing 1000 today for 3 years under compound interest \(a(t) = (1+i)^t\)?
Recap
- The discount factor \(v = 1/(1+i)\) brings 1 due in a year back to today.
- The present value of \(F\) due in \(t\) years is \(PV = F\cdot v^t = F/(1+i)^t\) — the reverse of accumulating at \((1+i)^t\).
- The effective rate of discount is \(d = i/(1+i) = i\cdot v\).
- Three identities tie them together: \(v = 1-d\), \(d = 1-v\), and \(i-d = i\cdot d\).
Dive deeper
- Wikibooks — Financial Math FM/Formulas Verify v=v^t, d=i/(1+i), and i=d/(1−d) against the formula sheet.
- AnalystPrep — Time Value of Money (SOA Exam FM Study Notes) Study discounting and the discount-factor / accumulation-factor reciprocity.
- Khan Academy — Present value 4 and discounted cash flow See present value applied to discounting future cash flows.
Sources
- Present Value, the Discount Factor, and the Rate of Discount